Posted by Sten Westgard, MS
I recently got a smart question from a concerned laboratory scientist. After reviewing one of the Sigma-metric studies on the website, he noted that while a particular method had a bad Sigma-metric, the main reason was due to the bias. His question was essentially (and I am paraphrasing here), "If the bias component comes from a particular difference between the instrument or kit and a reference system, shouldn't it be excluded from the Sigma-metric calculation?"
The reasoning is that the bias problem could be (1) eliminated through recalibration, (2) it may be a bias against a method that is not a reference method, so the difference might not be "real", or (3) if the reference range is adjusted and the method is used in exclusion, bias doesn't matter anyway.
We've had a lot of discussion about bias in our statistics lately. Is this a case where the Sigma-metric is "skewed"? What's your verdict? A discussion after the jump.
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